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Go Back   Poker Forums > Texas Hold Em Rooms > Advice & Strategy > Theory, Advice, Strategies

Pot Odds Question

Theory, Advice, Strategies

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Old 08-03-2006, 03:25 AM
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Default Pot Odds Question

I've been thinking about this for a little bit, and I should know the answer (or at least definitely need to know). Are pot odds calculated by including the money that you would have to put in the pot to call or not?

A fairly simple example of this would be a blinds match. Blinds are 100/200 and everyone folds to the SB, who calls. I check in the BB. We see a flop with 400 chips in the pot. SB bets out 400 chips, so there are now 800 chips in the pot. Am I getting 2:1 odds because there is 800 chips in the pot and it costs 400 to call, or am I getting 3:1 odds because there will be 1200 chips in the pot if I call, and it only costs me 400 to call?

I reread through Cowboy's Odds guide a few minutes ago, and he said it would be the first situation, but I seem to remember seeing somewhere that it would be the second situation (whether I saw this while reading or heard a pro player talk about it, I don't remember). Thanks for the assistance.
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Old 08-03-2006, 03:34 AM
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It's the amount the current pot, verses the amount you have to call.

If you are playing 2/4 limit, and the pot is $12, and it costs you $4 to call, you are getting 12-4 pot odds. For every $1 you put in, there is $3 in the pot. Simplified it's 3-1 odds.
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Old 08-03-2006, 03:37 AM
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2:1. Think about a game of blackjack..yes it's not poker but there's still a payout. If you bet $5 and win the hand (but don't hit blackjack), you win $10 - the $5 you bet $5 matched by the house. Your odds in blackjack are listed as 1:1, blackjack pays out 3:2. Since you are putting in 400 chips to gain 800 more, it's 2:1 odds.

EDIT: I just saw Adaon's post, and see it end with "simplified it's 3:1", thinking I just answered entirely incorrectly...Way to use the example used in the question and confuse everybody!
  
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Old 08-03-2006, 03:42 AM
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Sorry about that, I tend to make mistakes when using other people's examples, so I used my own.

K06 is correct that in the original example, it would be 2-1.
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Old 08-03-2006, 03:49 AM
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Agree. Its ratio of money you have to put it to play the pot that is already there.

What a great help I am!

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Old 08-03-2006, 01:26 PM
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